Curious Christian

Exploring life, art, spirituality, and the way of Jesus

If the King James Version is the only perfectly preserved word of God, then Abraham, Moses, David, Isaiah, Jesus, the apostles, Timothy, and every Christian who lived before 1611 lacked access to the perfectly preserved word of God. Yet Scripture never suggests any gap in God’s care for his people or any delay in the availability of his word until a future perfected English form. Instead, it consistently presents God’s word as truly present, authoritative, and sufficient for every generation in the form in which it was received and transmitted. In Scripture, preservation is shown in the continued possession, reading, and faithful transmission of God’s word among his people, not in a single later fixed wording in one language.

First, Scripture shows that God’s people genuinely possessed and relied on God’s word long before any modern translation or standardised text existed. Timothy, for example, knew the “holy Scriptures” from childhood (2 Timothy 3:15), referring to texts that existed centuries before English translations. Jesus and the apostles likewise treat the Scriptures already in circulation as fully authoritative for teaching, correction, and doctrine. At no point does Scripture suggest that earlier generations had a deficient or provisional form of God’s word awaiting a later perfect English restoration. Instead, the Scriptures they possessed are treated as fully sufficient for God’s purposes among his people at that time.

Second, Scripture itself demonstrates that God’s word functions authoritatively across languages and textual forms without requiring a single fixed wording. The New Testament frequently quotes the Greek Septuagint as Scripture, even where its wording differs from the Hebrew text (for example, Hebrews 10:5). This is significant because it shows that a translated form of Scripture can be received and used as the word of God in argument and doctrine, without being invalidated by wording differences or measured against a single exclusive textual form. The New Testament’s use of the Septuagint treats its wording as Scripture in that context, showing that authority is not restricted to one preserved linguistic form. The authority rests in the faithful transmission of God’s message, not in one preserved wording alone.

Finally, Scripture consistently presents preservation not as the existence of one perfect later edition, but as God’s ongoing faithfulness in preserving his word through transmission, reading, copying, and translation among his people. The biblical picture is not of a missing “perfect Bible” waiting to appear in 1611, but of a living and enduring word that remains present and effective wherever it is faithfully received and passed on in the languages of God’s people. Any definition of preservation that requires one exclusive perfect English text must therefore be argued from outside Scripture, not derived from its own pattern.

Therefore, the burden of Scripture is not to identify one exclusive perfect English form, but to recognise that God has already ensured his word is present, authoritative, and trustworthy throughout history as it is faithfully transmitted and translated among his people.

One response to “Is the King James Version the Only Perfect Word of God?”

  1. Charlotte Avatar
    Charlotte

    Hi! I’m wondering how you’re defining “God’s message/word” in this post. Your article rests on the argument that as long as “God’s word is faithfully transmitted and translated among his people”, any concrete translation by humans is acceptable as the word of God, but this feels a bit strange to me, given that since the only way God’s word manifests to us is through these concrete translations. Thus, it feels kind of like a chicken and egg situation: there’s no way to truly define his word or message through our methods (writing), but you’re saying his word is a defined concept. This feels very subjective and makes me wonder who, then, decides what the “true” message or word of God would be – since you say that unspecified message determines the validity of the translation, rather than the translation determining the message. Sorry for the long comment; I am a very logical person and struggle with the subjectivity of religion in general, so I would love to hear your thoughts on this!

    Like

Leave a comment